I would like to hear your thoughts in regards to the matter of Noah's Flood. In the past, I embraced the idea that the Flood was a global event and that the local flood view was unbiblical. However, after reading some articles by various Christians, I've come to approve of the local flood view. From what I have read on your website, it seems that you hold to the global flood view but don't see the local flood view as heretical. However, you seems to have issues with the local flood view, which I understand. I have decided to send a link to an article that deals with the issue of Noah's flood as I think you will find it quite interesting. It is by James Rochford on his website: http://www.evidenceunseen.com. In his article, he examines the global and local flood viewpoints. He argues that the global flood view is unbiblical. He cites Psalm 104:9, and relies on the meaning of certain Hebrew words, and utilizes various evidences to support his view. What are your thoughts on the claims of these articles?
Q: Some say Jesus cannot be the Messiah because no man can die for another's sins. Does this make sense?
Hello, I was watching a video debate between a Rabbi and a Pastor recently, where the Rabbi stated Jesus could not be the Messiah because no man can die for another man's sins. There is also a article on why Jesus could not be the Messiah, I was wondering if you could help me a bit here and comment on these claims? Thank you in advance. Here's the article; http://www.aish.com/jw/s/48892792.html?mobile=yes
In 1 Samuel 19:9, it reads, "But an evil spirit from the Lord....". How can there be an evil spirit from God, since there is no evil in Him? I've looked at several translations, and they are all the same. Can you explain this one? What is meant by this? Thank you.
I wanted to ask about how JESUS OUR LORD fulfilled the prophecy of the PROPHET LIKE MOSES. Did Moses mean he would be like him in life similarities such as his infancy in Egypt, being rejected, etc. or more because of the miracles he worked? Thanks in advance,
Question:I have a question regarding an article that was posted a few days ago. In this article it talks about how Satan is linked to the serpent in Genesis. The author then goes on to state that the idea of a "prince of darkness" only came about in the 2nd and 1st centuries BC and the idea of Satan was then linked to the serpent. It also makes mention of the dragon in Revelation among various other things. If this is true then it seems that the idea of Satan is just a later add-on doctrine. Michael Heiser also wrote an article concerning the absence of Satan in the Old Testament and in particular he cited Job. Some who are skeptical would say that Jesus was following the theology of his day. I was wondering how we explain this. Here are the articles below.........